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anonymous
 5 years ago
How to prove that the limit (as x goes to infinity) of a function's inverse (1/f(x)) cannot be zero, if the function's (f(x)) limit is zero?
anonymous
 5 years ago
How to prove that the limit (as x goes to infinity) of a function's inverse (1/f(x)) cannot be zero, if the function's (f(x)) limit is zero?

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anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0assume that the function f is something trivial like\[1/x^{2}\] then what about the inverse? it becomes nothing more than \[x^{2}\] what is the limit then of the inverse? \[\infty\]
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