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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

Hey...can anyone please explain how I figure out if ~(p ^ q) is equivalent or not equivalent to ~p ^ q

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  1. heisenberg
    • 5 years ago
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    I believe you can use a truth table to check this. Make a truth table for each and see if they are the same.

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    It isn't the equivalence of ~(P ^ Q) would be ~P \/ ~Q according to DeMorgan's law.

  3. heisenberg
    • 5 years ago
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    does ^ = logical OR and \/ = logical AND?

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ^ is and \/ is or

  5. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ^ is the "and" and V is the "or"

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    I was thinking it was what zealhack was saying...but I always confuse myself!!

  7. heisenberg
    • 5 years ago
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    you can make a truth table. check each combination of true and false like this: p = true, q = true: ~(true ^ true) = ~(true) = false p = true, q = false: ~(true ^ false) = ~false = true and so forth. make sense?

  8. heisenberg
    • 5 years ago
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    there will be 4 rows for each table (TT, TF, FT, FF). if the two tables are identical then the statements are equivalent.

  9. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    right, this all makes sense

  10. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    so in the first column of answers it would end up being T, F, F, F...right?

  11. heisenberg
    • 5 years ago
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    for which statement?

  12. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    wouldn't that just mean the number has to be 5 or bigger?

  13. heisenberg
    • 5 years ago
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    there are no numbers per say. these are logical expressions. each p, q can only be either true or false.

  14. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    heisenberg...right, I was helping another girl (trying to) and it popped up on here...sorry about that. The statement I was figuring out was the first one: ~(p ^ q)

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