If f prime (x) = sin(pi e^x/2) and f(0) = 1 then f(2) = ?

If f prime (x) = sin(pi e^x/2) and f(0) = 1 then f(2) = ?

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\[f \prime (x) = \sin(\pi e^x/2) and f(0)=1 then f(2)=?\]

This is just like the other one. Knowing what integrals do.

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