anonymous
  • anonymous
Why is it necessary to reverse the inequality symbol when multiplying both sides of an inequality by a negative number. Provide an example to support your explanation.
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
hey
anonymous
  • anonymous
Well, let's "provide an example" and see what is what. Shall we? I think we can agree: 4 > 2 Now let's multiply both sides by a negative number, -1: 4(-1) > 2(-1) -4 > -2 ?? You see that we run into a bit of a problem with this one. -4 is NOT greater than -2. -4 < -2 See that we had to change the inequality? I'm no expert, but let me rig up a proof for you, just a second.
anonymous
  • anonymous
iparke, i would be interested to see how you do on that link i gave you, you should check that out

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Haha, ok. What test should I do?
anonymous
  • anonymous
i think they are both the same, just pdf or word format
anonymous
  • anonymous
But Limits and Derivatives? I'm not too spectacular on my limits, I'd have to do another crash course. But I'll try it out.

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