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anonymous
 5 years ago
Why is it necessary to reverse the inequality symbol when multiplying both sides of an inequality by a negative number. Provide an example to support your explanation.
anonymous
 5 years ago
Why is it necessary to reverse the inequality symbol when multiplying both sides of an inequality by a negative number. Provide an example to support your explanation.

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anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Well, let's "provide an example" and see what is what. Shall we? I think we can agree: 4 > 2 Now let's multiply both sides by a negative number, 1: 4(1) > 2(1) 4 > 2 ?? You see that we run into a bit of a problem with this one. 4 is NOT greater than 2. 4 < 2 See that we had to change the inequality? I'm no expert, but let me rig up a proof for you, just a second.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0iparke, i would be interested to see how you do on that link i gave you, you should check that out

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Haha, ok. What test should I do?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i think they are both the same, just pdf or word format

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0But Limits and Derivatives? I'm not too spectacular on my limits, I'd have to do another crash course. But I'll try it out.
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