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Bad way to start. Get a common denominator: [(1*lnx)-(1*(x-1))]/[(x-1)lnx]
Let a=1/0 a-a=0. Therefore, your answer is 0.
I got -1/2, anyone agree?
you got it right. It is -1/2. Using hopitals rule.
@Harwin: No can do. 1/0 = infinity. Infinity - infinity is one of the 7 indeterminate forms. it's not 0. Esperantist is correct. Get a common denominator. Then it may be possible to use l'Hopital's rule.
Actually, this is probably the best way-> http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim+x-%3E1+%28%28[1%2F%28x-1%29]-[1%2Flnx]%29%29
thanks, yeah using hopitals rule twice
oops, the url broke
that wolframalpha thing is realllly nice
Oh damn, you're right. Man I suck at math.
no, indeterminants are just really weird
Harwin -- easy mistake to make. My students do it all the time.
I was joking.
wolframalpha.com (in case you haven't heard of it already)--it helps a lot with understanding IMO
k thanks Esperantist, i'll check it out
If anyone's still around I have sin(x)/[1-cos(x)], I got -1/2 again, is that right?
what does it approach to?