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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

Inverse of a Function help? Determine whether f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other. a) f(x) = (√x+1) - 1 b) g(x) = (x + 1)^2 - 1

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  1. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    hard to answer since i cant add pics of graphs but no they arent inverse of eachother

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    f and g are inverses if operating on one with the other yields x. That is, if f and g are inverses of each other, then\[f(g(x))=x\] and \[g(f(x))=x\]Without restriction, they're not inverses of each other. If they were inverses, they would be mirror images of each other about the line y=x...they're not.

  3. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    Inverses are known as "one-to-one" functions. g(x)=x^2 is not a one-to-one function. For example: x^2=9, x=3 AND x=-3. In order for g(x) to have in inverse, we have to restrict its domain to either only positive values of x, or only negative values of x.

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