find the linearization of f(x) = 1/x at a=10

At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get our expert's

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this and thousands of other questions.

A community for students.

find the linearization of f(x) = 1/x at a=10

Mathematics
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this and thousands of other questions

The linearization of a function can be found using the following method: \[f(x) ≈ f(a)+f\prime(a)(x-a)\] Where f(a) = 1/a f'(a) = d/dx(1/a) So, all we have to do is compute the derivative of f(x) and then we have everything we need to get the linearization. \[f(x) = 1/x = x^{-1}\]\[f\prime(x)=-x^{-2}=-1/x^{2}\] Now we just apply the rule to approximate the tangent line at x=a=3 so, \[f\prime(a) = -1/(3)^{2} = -1/9\]\[f(a) = 1/a = 1/3\] Therefore, the linear approximation of f(x) at a = 3 is \[f(x) ≈ 1/3 - 1/9(x - 3)\] Now will you go on a date with me? :P
haha if your answer turns out to be correct? ;)
how would i use this to approximate 1/9.78 just plug that in for x?

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question

Other answers:

Yup, smart and beautiful.
haha hardly smart if i'm on this thing but thank you

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question