How does sin(t)/(1-cos(t)) simplify to cos(t)/sin(t)?

At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get our expert's

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this and thousands of other questions.

A community for students.

How does sin(t)/(1-cos(t)) simplify to cos(t)/sin(t)?

Mathematics
See more answers at brainly.com
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this and thousands of other questions

are you sure that's the exact question as written?
It doesn't. Pick t=5 and you'll see it doesn't work.
For example...

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question

Other answers:

Well it's that I'm looking at a solution my teacher wrote. He was showing how a cycloid had infinitely sharp cusps by finding the limit of the derivative of the parametric formulas given. So he was trying first to find the limit of sin(t)/(1-cos(t)) and he jumped to trying to find the limit of cos(t)/sin(t) because apparently, they're equal.
Look at #5. http://people.sfcollege.edu/bruce.teague/pdf/2312%20W11/2312_MG5_solutions_W11.pdf This link should work.
Did everybody leave?
Awww c'mon!
Now what am I gonna do?
Calm down...I'll have a look.
Haha ok
Oh, he's used L'Hopital's rule...do you know about that?
Maybe. I might have forgotten.
I was about say that
When you have indeterminate forms for the limit (numerator and denominator each go to something like 0/0 or infinity/infinity), the limit of the original ratio is equal to the limit ratio of the derivatives of the numerator and denominator.
Take the derivative of the numerator of sin(t) and you get cos(t), and the derivative of 1-cost(t) is sin(t).
Oh! It's all coming back now.
OK. That makes sense. Thank you soooooo much.
Fan me then! :) I want to reach superstar!
How does one fan someone else?
\[\lim_{t \rightarrow 0} \frac{sin(t)}{1-\cos(t)}= \frac{0}{1-1}=\frac{0}{0}\] lokisan is right, this is an indeterminate and using L'hopital would give you
there should be a link-type thing next to my name..."Become a fan"
I'm not seeing it. I'm looking.
It's in the thread window...little 'thumbs up' icon. There's one next to your own name too.
There. I got it.
Awesome...cheers!

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question