anonymous
  • anonymous
hello I am trying to understand why the limit of as x->0 from the right for (lnx)/(sinx) is -infinity
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
use l'hosptitals rule
anonymous
  • anonymous
I am I just dont undesrtand how you get that answer
anonymous
  • anonymous
the top gives me 1/x and the bottom cos x which is still undetermined at the top

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
that equals 1/xcosx
anonymous
  • anonymous
i get that part but how does that end up being negative infinity
amistre64
  • amistre64
as ln(x) approaches 0 we go to negative infinity as sin(x) approaches 0 we go to 1
amistre64
  • amistre64
the graph of ln(x) as it approaches 0 drops down and down and down and never touches 0....it goes to -inf.
anonymous
  • anonymous
got it thank you
amistre64
  • amistre64
yay!! :)

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.