anonymous
  • anonymous
(x-y)/(x+y)(x-y) is it legal to remove (x-y) leaving me with 1/(x+y) ?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
yes it is :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
you can cancel (x-y) from top and bottom ^_^
anonymous
  • anonymous
As long as \[x \neq y\].

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anonymous
  • anonymous
now why would x = y?
anonymous
  • anonymous
you can just simply simplify without looking at that condition ^_^
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok thanks!
anonymous
  • anonymous
np :)
amistre64
  • amistre64
(x-y) -------- (x+y)(x-y) What looks like "canceling" like terms top to bottom is actually misleading. What you are doing is seperating the fraction into parts; and anything that is equal to (1) stays there, but is implied. 1 (x-y) 1 ---- ---- = ---- times (1) (x+y) (x-y) (x+y)
anonymous
  • anonymous
You must have the condition that x does not equal y. Because along the line x=y you will have a discontinuity in your graph. Specifically a hole I think. The function is not defined there.
amistre64
  • amistre64
If we are talking about the graph of the function, then you are correct. If we can "cross out" like terms it will create a hole in the graph, a jump discontinuity.

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