(x-y)/(x+y)(x-y) is it legal to remove (x-y) leaving me with 1/(x+y) ?
Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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now why would x = y?
you can just simply simplify without looking at that condition ^_^
What looks like "canceling" like terms top to bottom is actually misleading.
What you are doing is seperating the fraction into parts; and anything that is equal to (1) stays there, but is implied.
1 (x-y) 1
---- ---- = ---- times (1)
(x+y) (x-y) (x+y)
You must have the condition that x does not equal y. Because along the line x=y you will have a discontinuity in your graph. Specifically a hole I think. The function is not defined there.
If we are talking about the graph of the function, then you are correct. If we can "cross out" like terms it will create a hole in the graph, a jump discontinuity.