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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

Why does lim x tends to 0 of sinx/tanx = 1 ? just can't see it

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  1. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Sin (x) / Tan (x) = Cos (x) since Tan(x) = Sin(x)/ Cos(x) and lim x-> 0 Cos(x) = 1 since Cos(0) = 1

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Is that a basic formula... Cosx = sinx/tanx??? Maybe I missed that Reading accidentally?

  3. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Because tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x), sin(x) divided by sin(x)/cos(x) is the same thing as sin(x)*cos(x)/sin(x). Cancel sin(x) and you're left with cos(x) with x approaching zero.

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Wonderful!!!Got it now! The answer always seems so simple after it's explained! Thank you again!

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