anonymous
  • anonymous
Suppose X and Y have joint density f(x,y)=1 for 0
Mathematics
schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
I set this up like: \[\int\limits_{0}^{1} \int\limits_{0}^{z/y} dx dy\] - I end up with a ln y which takes everything to zero. is there something I'm missing becuase of the XY is less than or equal to z???
nowhereman
  • nowhereman
Well that integral does not exist. And neither does the original density. A probability density of 1 over an unbounded area is wrong. Or maybe the initial condition was \[0
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok. I'll double check the question. thanks

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Yep. I've got the question right... I hope this isn't one of those partial derivative things. It's been too long since I've done these :(
nowhereman
  • nowhereman
They probably mean that both x and y are restricted to [0, 1] because the integral of the density over that domain must be 1. So just replace z/y by min(1, z/y)
anonymous
  • anonymous
that makes sense...
anonymous
  • anonymous
so how would this be finished?
anonymous
  • anonymous
what do you mean by min(1, z/y) and how do i implement that

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