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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

Integral of (lnx) / x ^ 2 from 1 to 2

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  1. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    I couldn't find my original post so I had to repost it :/

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    integrate by parts

  3. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    I know that but how!?

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    choose f and dg so that the integral df g will solve easily

  5. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    let f be lnx and dg be 1/x^2

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    df = dx/x and g= -1/x

  7. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    \[\int\limits_{}^{}fdg = fg - \int\limits_{}^{}gdf\]

  8. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    But I end up taking the integral of a natural log... don't i?

  9. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    no, you end up taking the derivative of it

  10. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Oh you used the opposite for f and dg... ok that works

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