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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

At 1000 hours an aircraft starts from A to fly to B, a flight which will take 4 hours. At 1042 a second aircraft starts the same journey and will complete the flight in 2 hours 30 minutes. If the distance from A to B is 800 miles, at what time will the aircraft be the same distance from B?

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  1. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    when the distance between the 2 planes = 0 then they are the same distance from pointB

  2. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    800/4 is the speed of the 1st aircraft 800/(2.5) is the speed of the second aircraft..

  3. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    200 mph and 320 mph sound about right...

  4. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    does 1042 means 42 minutes after 10?

  5. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    yeah I got the speeds

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    thats right 45 mins after 10

  7. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    ok, so if we convert 45 minutes into a fraction of an hour, we will be able to work with it better.... 3/4 or .75 of an hour....

  8. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    42 mins* but thats where I got stuck

  9. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    ok... 60/42 is a good enough fraction to work with :)

  10. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    yeah got that

  11. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    divide each by 3... 20/14....10/7.... 15/7 seems good... you agree?

  12. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    10/7 seems good

  13. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    yeah 10/7 looks ok

  14. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    these are the options given: a 1110 hrs b 1124 hrs c 1142 hrs d 1152 hrs

  15. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    lets make some equations then... 200x + 10/7 = D 320x = D does that make sense to you?

  16. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    I think i missed it... we need to know hoe far the first plane has traveled and add that...not the hours...lol

  17. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    200(10/7) is the "added" distance, or the advantage that the 1st plane has...

  18. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ermm .. Y would it be + 10/7. Dont get how the + comes into it

  19. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ok that makes sense

  20. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    200x + 285.7 = D 320x = D where D is the equal distance flown .... hows that?

  21. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    yeah that makes sense

  22. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    makes better sense, but what doesnt make sense to me yet is that it is less than an hour, but the 1st plane has gone more than 200? gotta see where I missed that at :)

  23. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    hmm ...

  24. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    200(60/42) = 190.5 looks alot better, musta got it turned around in me head somewhere :)

  25. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    I didnt get 190.5

  26. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    7/10 should be our multiplier... 60 is the whole, 42 is the part; part/whole = percent.... .7

  27. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    200(.7)= 140... that HAS to be it lol maybe

  28. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    One way to consider it: Look at the time when only the first is flying; it is going to 200mph for 42 minutes, so will end up 140miles away from A. NEXT, look at the motion after they are both moving. If you apply a vector of -200mph to both planes, the one that set off first is effectively stationary, so you only need to consider how long it takes the second plane to 'catch up' the 140 mile head start at (320 - 200)mph = 120mph, which is just time = distance over speed. Add the initial 42 minutes and you're done.

  29. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    200/60 tells us miles per minute; times 42 equals distance traved in 42 minutes...

  30. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    200x+140 = 320x 140 = 320x - 200x 140 = 120x x = 140/120 = 14/12 = 7/6... 1 hour and 6/60 minutes.... if it agrees with Newtons :)

  31. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    oh that make sense so it should be 200(42/60) = 140 (I.e the distances travelled by plane A)

  32. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    Yep.... 1042 + 0106 = 1148...

  33. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    but these are the options: a 1110 hrs b 1124 hrs c 1142 hrs d 1152 hrs

  34. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    1 hour and 1/6 of another .... ack!! my math is off today...

  35. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    1hour and 10 minutes... double check that :)

  36. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    1042+0110 = 1152....

  37. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    But yes, I agree. Time = 42 minutes + (140/120) minutes = 42 + (7/6) hours = the same as yours.

  38. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Ahh .. thanks you

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