anonymous
  • anonymous
Using the first three terms of the Maclaurin's series, what is the value of cos(π/2)?
Mathematics
katieb
  • katieb
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this
and thousands of other questions

anonymous
  • anonymous
Do you know how to find the MacLaurin/Taylor series of cos(x)?
anonymous
  • anonymous
No!!
anonymous
  • anonymous
Here's the general form: MacLaurin series of f(x) centered about x=0: \[f(0) + f'(0)*x + \frac{f''(0)*x^2}{2!} + \frac{f'''(0)*x^3}{3!} + ... + \frac{f^n(0)*x^n}{n!} + ...\] Use this to find the MacLaurin series of cos(x). You should notice a pattern pretty quickly, and since you're only using the first three terms, you want to plug π/2 for x after you get the series.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
Thank you !!
anonymous
  • anonymous
Sorry, the general term should be f^(n) instead of f^n, because you're taking the n-th derivative of the function at 0. No problem. :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
O.K.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.