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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

is it possible for an unbounded region to have a finite area? justify your answer with example and reasoning.

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  1. nowhereman
    • 5 years ago
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    Yes, that is just the reason why improper integrals can exist. Try \[1/x^2\] for example.

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    but wats the reasoning?

  3. nowhereman
    • 5 years ago
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    You could say, that the area of an unbounded region can be seen as just another series and if the elements of the series get smaller fast enough the limit exists.

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    but wats the reasoning?

  5. nowhereman
    • 5 years ago
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    That should be enough reasoning for everybody.

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    thanks but still not sure,

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