## anonymous 5 years ago without using the integral test directly show that the sum of(1/n) from n=1 to N diverges as N goes to infinity

1. anonymous

hey 'whats up

2. anonymous

$\sum_{n=1}^{N} (1/n) diverges as N \rightarrow \infty$

3. anonymous

mathgirl

4. anonymous

whats up

5. anonymous

trying 2 figurure out this problem...:(

6. anonymous

*figure

7. anonymous

AWW DONT CRY

8. anonymous

9. anonymous

what grade r u in mathgirl?

10. anonymous

really? help me

11. anonymous

k whats going on :P

12. anonymous

in in uni, 2nd year

13. anonymous

i am to

14. anonymous

maybe we can hang out and have sex

15. anonymous

thats so imature dud..

16. anonymous

freak!!

17. anonymous

lol shut up andrew garcia

18. anonymous

get lost!

19. anonymous

If you don't need anything major as a proof, you could simply state that p series only converge if s > 2, and seeing as s = 1 in this problem, s < 2, therefore it does not converge. If you want a more complicated proof: http://www.math.unh.edu/~jjp/proof/proof_n.html

20. anonymous

wow that guy is a freak ..

21. anonymous

i was jk !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

22. anonymous

hey mathsgirl whats the problem

23. anonymous

its at the top...i think i should use the comparison test but im not sure how

24. anonymous

mathsygirl im sorry !

25. anonymous

really

26. anonymous

27. anonymous

thanks qwer the link is quite good :)

28. anonymous

jonathan2...really, get lost!

29. anonymous

woow!!!!!!!!!!!!

30. anonymous

31. anonymous

You can use the comparison test by testing another divergent series. If that divergent series is always less than 1/n then that implies 1/n is divergent as well.

32. anonymous

and a total feather

33. anonymous

what a jerk

34. anonymous

thanks again qwer

35. anonymous

Find more explanations on OpenStudy