anonymous
  • anonymous
Can someone explain why tanπ=0 doesn't imply that arctan0=π?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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myininaya
  • myininaya
it does
anonymous
  • anonymous
That's what I thought. Thank you.
myininaya
  • myininaya
what maybe i'm wrong arctan0=0

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Oh dear...I was wrong then also...That makes sense because zero is normally always zero when plugged into a trig function.
myininaya
  • myininaya
cos(0)=1
myininaya
  • myininaya
arctan is the inverse of tan its weird when you take arctan of both sides it should still hold unless I'm missing something
myininaya
  • myininaya
arctan(tanpi)=arctan(0) pi=arctan(0)
myininaya
  • myininaya
omg i totally forgot we have to restrict the domain of tan so that tan would have inverse and pi is outside that domain
anonymous
  • anonymous
omg...SHOOT ME!
myininaya
  • myininaya
for reals tan is not one to one so we have to make it one to one so it does have a freaking inverse
myininaya
  • myininaya
i'm such an idiot
anonymous
  • anonymous
YOU?! At least you are able to figure this out!!! I can't for the life of me! :D

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