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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

Why is sin^-1 (-sqrt3/2) = -pi/3 and cos^-1 (-sqrt2/2) = 3pi/4 Basically, why in the first problem is the answer a negative reference angle and the second one is not?

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  1. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    sin inverse and cosine inverse have different ranges

  2. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    or domains really, ranges are good lol

  3. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    the domain for the sin: -pi/2 all the way to pi/2 the domain for the cos: 0 all the way to pi

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Ohhhhh I see! Thanks a bunch!!

  5. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    But why is it not 5pi/3?

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Th first one is -pi/3, isn't that the same as 5pi/3? So why is the reference radian used?

  7. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    5pi/3 is not in the domain of the sin inverse function; but, its equivalent "-pi/3" is. So to these inverse a "function" meaning that for every single input there can only be one output, they have to give an answer to a restricted domain.

  8. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    to keep these inverses a function....is what it was sposed to say

  9. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    for example: which would you rather have: $20 in as one 20 dollar bill? or in 20 one dollar billls? both are equaivalent amounts, but if all you got is ones, then thats all you get ;)

  10. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Ohhhh I get that! Thanks heaps!

  11. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    youre welcome :)

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