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anonymous
 5 years ago
is the integral of a function always talking about the area from 0 to some value.
anonymous
 5 years ago
is the integral of a function always talking about the area from 0 to some value.

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anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0nope, integrals can be improper, indefinite, and definite from values other than 0.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0how can you tell the difference?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0by the values above and below the integral symbol, known as the bounds

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0\[\int\limits_{lowerbound}^{upperbound}\]

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0that means that f(t) is the derivative of g(x). when it says g(4) that means that 4 becomes your x, or upper bound

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0can you take a look at that

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0g'(4) is the derivative at x=4, since we know that f(t) is our derivative then g'(4) =f(4)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0so how come you cant just look at the picture and get the value of F(4) then subtract it with the value of f(0)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0the problem i had was finding g(4)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0I thought that you could take the f(4) then just subtract f(0) for g(4) but then...I got 2, but it was 3. So really it was the the area of f(1) to f(4) then subtract the area of f(0) to f(1)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0the integral requires you tyake the antiderivative before you can plug in values. since f(4) is not a equation defines function for us, the best way is to use geometry to find the area of the graph of f(0) to f(4) BECAUSE g(4) is the integral of f(x) from 0 to 4, so youre just finding the area underneath the line of f(x) from 0 to 4

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0just count how many unit blocks fit under the line from f(0) to f(4), there should be no equations involved in this process unless its the area of a triangle and a square

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0ohh yeah....i forgot about that...you need to take the antiderivative before plugging in the values..that makes sense...so since you can't you have to just look at the areas....thanks you

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0bingo, good luck, click my fan button :)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0wait last question...so why do you need to subtract the area under from 0 to 1?
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