What is the limit as x goes to infinity of ((ln x)^p)/x?

At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get our expert's

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this and thousands of other questions.

A community for students.

What is the limit as x goes to infinity of ((ln x)^p)/x?

Mathematics
See more answers at brainly.com
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this and thousands of other questions

I keep getting infinity over infinity no matter how many times I do L'Hopital's rule. What's the right way to do this?
i think it s correct way and u take p times
That doesn't make sense. The problem is the derivative of (ln x)^p gives me 1/x as part of the answer. x goes into the denominator, and voila, the limit as x goes to infinity of x is infinity - thus the infinity over infinity. That's why I'm thinking I'm doing something wrong.

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question

Other answers:

i think \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}p!*1/x=0\]
Wouldn't that equal \[p!\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 1/x\] 0*p!=0. I don't get how that's relevant.
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}p*(p-1)*(p-2)*****2*1*1/x\]
is ok?
I'll see if I can turn that into a factorial somehow. Thanks.

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question