anonymous
  • anonymous
Let \[a_{1}, a _{2}......\] be a Fibonacci series. I have a book which has a problem under the "mathematical induction" chapter, which asks me to prove \[a _{n+1}^{2}=a _{n}a _{n+2}=(-1)^{n}\] I think the statement is incorrect. For n=1, we don't have the statement correct, and I can't expect it to be correct for n>1 as \[(-1)^{n}\] will always only have values either +1 or -1, and the expression \[a _{n}a _{n+2}\] will have increasing value. Do you think I am correct, or is there really a prove for the statement. Please provide me some help.
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
\[a_{n+2}a_n-a_{n+1}^2=(-)^n\]is a true statement.
anonymous
  • anonymous
But the statement given there is not correct, am I right?
anonymous
  • anonymous
So your '=' sign is not a typo.?

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
No
anonymous
  • anonymous
When then it's incorrect.
anonymous
  • anonymous
It should be a minus sign.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Thanks A LOT
anonymous
  • anonymous
np
anonymous
  • anonymous
I told you a genius like you will need a look to solve the problem
anonymous
  • anonymous
You don't have any idea, what help you are providing just free of cost
anonymous
  • anonymous
Anyways, You are a busy person, so I must not hold you here, Bye
anonymous
  • anonymous
:) I haven't had a chance to look at the other question yet. I'm thinking the problem can be solved by proving first that linking the last contestant to fight the one left over at the beginning is the same as linking the new (k+1) guy to somewhere else in the system. Once that's done, the induction is as we said.
anonymous
  • anonymous
That sounds awkward.
anonymous
  • anonymous
I should have more time in the middle of the week. When is STEP?
anonymous
  • anonymous
20th June 2011 PM STEP Paper II takes place 22nd June 2011 PM STEP Paper III takes place 24th June 2011 AM STEP Paper I takes place
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok...plenty of time!
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yes thats true
anonymous
  • anonymous
Alright, I have to go do some work. Like I said, middle of the week will be better.
anonymous
  • anonymous
But I am taking several other similar exams, which you haven't heard of
anonymous
  • anonymous
Sure bye now
anonymous
  • anonymous
What are you intending to do with the results of the exams?
anonymous
  • anonymous
I will email that to you. People will not like me saying such things here. They will think i am too presumptuous
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok
anonymous
  • anonymous
i'm off now. happy studies.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Thanks and bye

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.