anonymous
  • anonymous
Find the volume of the infinitely long horn that is generated by rotating the region bounded by y = 1 x and y = 0 and lying to the right of x = 1 about the x-axis. where to start just give me a hint.
Mathematics
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
See more answers at brainly.com
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this
and thousands of other questions

anonymous
  • anonymous
hey there im working on another problem. can you follow me.
anonymous
  • anonymous
well the student isnt responding, ok
anonymous
  • anonymous
i know i need to write an integration for the disc formed by roation but i don't know how

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
waityour problem doesnt make sense
anonymous
  • anonymous
it says bounded by x =0, y=0, y=1 , x=1 , then to the right of x=1 ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
Find the volume of the infinitely long horn that is generated by rotating the region bounded by y = 1/x and y = 0 and lying to the right of x = 1 about the x-axis. sorry for the error
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok so integral pi (1/x)^2 from 1 to infinity
anonymous
  • anonymous
ohk so the infinity part just means that upper limit is infinity :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
so you get -pi x^-1 from 1 to infinity,
anonymous
  • anonymous
so -pi / infinity - ( - pi / 1) = 0 + pi = pi
anonymous
  • anonymous
thanks :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
make me fan
anonymous
  • anonymous
already did :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
:)
anonymous
  • anonymous
so whats interesting about this, there is no bottom to this horn, so water can travel infinitely, but , the volume is finite?
anonymous
  • anonymous
i mean if you think of the volume as being submerged in water, you would think, ok , how can this "water bottle horn" have pi units of water

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.