anonymous
  • anonymous
In humans , dimples is dominant over non – dimples. A man who is homozygous for dimples, has children with a woman who is heterozygous for dimples. What is the chance none of the children will have non- dimples?
Mathematics
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
iknow itss biology, but i realyy needhelp
anonymous
  • anonymous
:( pleaseeeeee :(
anonymous
  • anonymous
so the dad is dominate homozygous?

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anonymous
  • anonymous
yes
anonymous
  • anonymous
Ok so can you go to http://www.dabbleboard.com/draw?b=Guest665407&i=0&c=aea4df165cb5ea33f2ea8be35be92e1159da9821 I can draw out the problem for you there and explain it to you better
anonymous
  • anonymous
sure thnks
anonymous
  • anonymous
hhello?
anonymous
  • anonymous
There I just replied lol sorry
anonymous
  • anonymous
replyhere cz my internet hs some prob.. just tell me phenotpe nd genotype !
anonymous
  • anonymous
Phenotype= the physical attribute of the person ( DD would be dimples, Dd would be Dimples (because the D trait is dominant over the d recessive trait), dd would be no dimples)
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
Genotype= the genes that the person has (DD or Dd or dd)
anonymous
  • anonymous
so all of the kids are going to have dimples
anonymous
  • anonymous
o ok
anonymous
  • anonymous
make sense
anonymous
  • anonymous
i wannask you morequestions but i goa goo now . :( when am i able to see you??
anonymous
  • anonymous
uhm can you just post back on this question or email me mmbuckaroos@gmail.com

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