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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

In humans , dimples is dominant over non – dimples. A man who is homozygous for dimples, has children with a woman who is heterozygous for dimples. What is the chance none of the children will have non- dimples?

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  1. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    iknow itss biology, but i realyy needhelp

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    :( pleaseeeeee :(

  3. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    so the dad is dominate homozygous?

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    yes

  5. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Ok so can you go to http://www.dabbleboard.com/draw?b=Guest665407&i=0&c=aea4df165cb5ea33f2ea8be35be92e1159da9821 I can draw out the problem for you there and explain it to you better

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    sure thnks

  7. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    hhello?

  8. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    There I just replied lol sorry

  9. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    replyhere cz my internet hs some prob.. just tell me phenotpe nd genotype !

  10. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Phenotype= the physical attribute of the person ( DD would be dimples, Dd would be Dimples (because the D trait is dominant over the d recessive trait), dd would be no dimples)

  11. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ok :)

  12. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Genotype= the genes that the person has (DD or Dd or dd)

  13. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    so all of the kids are going to have dimples

  14. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    o ok

  15. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    make sense

  16. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    i wannask you morequestions but i goa goo now . :( when am i able to see you??

  17. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    uhm can you just post back on this question or email me mmbuckaroos@gmail.com

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