anonymous
  • anonymous
prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
0! is defined as 1. QED.
anonymous
  • anonymous
prove it
anonymous
  • anonymous
I think you misunderstand the terms ' definition ' and 'prove'.

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anonymous
  • anonymous
You can explain why it 'makes sense' it should be one, but when it comes down it it, it's just defined to be that.
anonymous
  • anonymous
everything has a prove in mathematics ,
anonymous
  • anonymous
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom . Now shut up please.
anonymous
  • anonymous
see, i can prove it but there is always some "bug". maybe it will work for you but for some other person (who has more knowledge of maths) can prove it wrong.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Prove it.
anonymous
  • anonymous
I mean, like I said there are EXPLANATIONS like this http://www.adonald.btinternet.co.uk/Factor/Zero.html But it is different.
anonymous
  • anonymous
prove it ,it does,nt mater ,it will add knowlede
anonymous
  • anonymous
its a convention
anonymous
  • anonymous
lots of math people got together and decided, hey this is going to be the way
anonymous
  • anonymous
but the reason for it , it simplifies many formulas
anonymous
  • anonymous
thanks ,newton it was helpful
anonymous
  • anonymous
so maybe you should ask, whats the reason for the convention, thats a better question,
anonymous
  • anonymous
it can be proved using Gamma function
anonymous
  • anonymous
its just a definition, so you cant ask to prove a definition
anonymous
  • anonymous
or simply using the definition of the n!
anonymous
  • anonymous
you cant prove for example, that a bachelor is unmarried. its a definition
anonymous
  • anonymous
"It can be proved using the definition" Hmm, sounds like a proof to me (xD)
anonymous
  • anonymous
well n! = n * n-1 *...*3*2*1
anonymous
  • anonymous
theres isnt 0! in it
anonymous
  • anonymous
hehe
anonymous
  • anonymous
i am on my phone so its hard for me to type the whole derivation. or i would have given you
anonymous
  • anonymous
proof, by definition? ok i guess
anonymous
  • anonymous
but we dont define things just willy nilly. they are usually well good god reasons for it
anonymous
  • anonymous
n!=n(n-1! put n=1
anonymous
  • anonymous
While you're at it, prove all the axioms please, umza? And (technically), \[1! = 1 \times 0! \] \[2! = 2 \times 1! \] \[3! = 3 \times 2! \] ... \[n! = n \times (n-1)! \]
anonymous
  • anonymous
Umza please go learn the definition of 'proof' and come back.
anonymous
  • anonymous
mean?INew
anonymous
  • anonymous
uzma, that doesnt work
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok thank u
anonymous
  • anonymous
uzma , what about 0! = 0 * (0-1)! ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
anyways, i like the binomial series , i think its called pochhammer
anonymous
  • anonymous
(0-1)! does it work?
anonymous
  • anonymous
the reason why we have 0! is because we have n choose r = n! / ( n-r)! r!
anonymous
  • anonymous
and when you have r = 0, we have n! / n! 0!
anonymous
  • anonymous
the actual proof is done using Gamma function
anonymous
  • anonymous
wait, its false that 0! = 0 * (0-1)!
anonymous
  • anonymous
the proof for what, the bionomial series
anonymous
  • anonymous
oh sorry, i misread the question and thought that you are asking to prove 0 = 1 instead of 0! = 1 lol. its very easy to prove.
anonymous
  • anonymous
OMG yes it's SOOOO EASY to prove - just do it quickly please?
anonymous
  • anonymous
but i don't know to type, its not easy to type "please".
anonymous
  • anonymous
Oh, I thought so.
anonymous
  • anonymous
i'm back!!! are you guys there. lol

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