prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?

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prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?

Mathematics
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0! is defined as 1. QED.
prove it
I think you misunderstand the terms ' definition ' and 'prove'.

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You can explain why it 'makes sense' it should be one, but when it comes down it it, it's just defined to be that.
everything has a prove in mathematics ,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom . Now shut up please.
see, i can prove it but there is always some "bug". maybe it will work for you but for some other person (who has more knowledge of maths) can prove it wrong.
Prove it.
I mean, like I said there are EXPLANATIONS like this http://www.adonald.btinternet.co.uk/Factor/Zero.html But it is different.
prove it ,it does,nt mater ,it will add knowlede
its a convention
lots of math people got together and decided, hey this is going to be the way
but the reason for it , it simplifies many formulas
thanks ,newton it was helpful
so maybe you should ask, whats the reason for the convention, thats a better question,
it can be proved using Gamma function
its just a definition, so you cant ask to prove a definition
or simply using the definition of the n!
you cant prove for example, that a bachelor is unmarried. its a definition
"It can be proved using the definition" Hmm, sounds like a proof to me (xD)
well n! = n * n-1 *...*3*2*1
theres isnt 0! in it
hehe
i am on my phone so its hard for me to type the whole derivation. or i would have given you
proof, by definition? ok i guess
but we dont define things just willy nilly. they are usually well good god reasons for it
n!=n(n-1! put n=1
While you're at it, prove all the axioms please, umza? And (technically), \[1! = 1 \times 0! \] \[2! = 2 \times 1! \] \[3! = 3 \times 2! \] ... \[n! = n \times (n-1)! \]
Umza please go learn the definition of 'proof' and come back.
mean?INew
uzma, that doesnt work
ok thank u
uzma , what about 0! = 0 * (0-1)! ?
anyways, i like the binomial series , i think its called pochhammer
(0-1)! does it work?
the reason why we have 0! is because we have n choose r = n! / ( n-r)! r!
and when you have r = 0, we have n! / n! 0!
the actual proof is done using Gamma function
wait, its false that 0! = 0 * (0-1)!
the proof for what, the bionomial series
oh sorry, i misread the question and thought that you are asking to prove 0 = 1 instead of 0! = 1 lol. its very easy to prove.
OMG yes it's SOOOO EASY to prove - just do it quickly please?
but i don't know to type, its not easy to type "please".
Oh, I thought so.
i'm back!!! are you guys there. lol

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