## anonymous 5 years ago prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?

1. anonymous

0! is defined as 1. QED.

2. anonymous

prove it

3. anonymous

I think you misunderstand the terms ' definition ' and 'prove'.

4. anonymous

You can explain why it 'makes sense' it should be one, but when it comes down it it, it's just defined to be that.

5. anonymous

everything has a prove in mathematics ,

6. anonymous

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom . Now shut up please.

7. anonymous

see, i can prove it but there is always some "bug". maybe it will work for you but for some other person (who has more knowledge of maths) can prove it wrong.

8. anonymous

Prove it.

9. anonymous

I mean, like I said there are EXPLANATIONS like this http://www.adonald.btinternet.co.uk/Factor/Zero.html But it is different.

10. anonymous

prove it ,it does,nt mater ,it will add knowlede

11. anonymous

its a convention

12. anonymous

lots of math people got together and decided, hey this is going to be the way

13. anonymous

but the reason for it , it simplifies many formulas

14. anonymous

15. anonymous

so maybe you should ask, whats the reason for the convention, thats a better question,

16. anonymous

it can be proved using Gamma function

17. anonymous

its just a definition, so you cant ask to prove a definition

18. anonymous

or simply using the definition of the n!

19. anonymous

you cant prove for example, that a bachelor is unmarried. its a definition

20. anonymous

"It can be proved using the definition" Hmm, sounds like a proof to me (xD)

21. anonymous

well n! = n * n-1 *...*3*2*1

22. anonymous

theres isnt 0! in it

23. anonymous

hehe

24. anonymous

i am on my phone so its hard for me to type the whole derivation. or i would have given you

25. anonymous

proof, by definition? ok i guess

26. anonymous

but we dont define things just willy nilly. they are usually well good god reasons for it

27. anonymous

n!=n(n-1! put n=1

28. anonymous

While you're at it, prove all the axioms please, umza? And (technically), $1! = 1 \times 0!$ $2! = 2 \times 1!$ $3! = 3 \times 2!$ ... $n! = n \times (n-1)!$

29. anonymous

Umza please go learn the definition of 'proof' and come back.

30. anonymous

mean?INew

31. anonymous

uzma, that doesnt work

32. anonymous

ok thank u

33. anonymous

uzma , what about 0! = 0 * (0-1)! ?

34. anonymous

anyways, i like the binomial series , i think its called pochhammer

35. anonymous

(0-1)! does it work?

36. anonymous

the reason why we have 0! is because we have n choose r = n! / ( n-r)! r!

37. anonymous

and when you have r = 0, we have n! / n! 0!

38. anonymous

the actual proof is done using Gamma function

39. anonymous

wait, its false that 0! = 0 * (0-1)!

40. anonymous

the proof for what, the bionomial series

41. anonymous

oh sorry, i misread the question and thought that you are asking to prove 0 = 1 instead of 0! = 1 lol. its very easy to prove.

42. anonymous

OMG yes it's SOOOO EASY to prove - just do it quickly please?

43. anonymous

but i don't know to type, its not easy to type "please".

44. anonymous

Oh, I thought so.

45. anonymous

i'm back!!! are you guys there. lol