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anonymous
 5 years ago
prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?
anonymous
 5 years ago
prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?

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anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.00! is defined as 1. QED.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0I think you misunderstand the terms ' definition ' and 'prove'.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0You can explain why it 'makes sense' it should be one, but when it comes down it it, it's just defined to be that.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0everything has a prove in mathematics ,

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom . Now shut up please.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0see, i can prove it but there is always some "bug". maybe it will work for you but for some other person (who has more knowledge of maths) can prove it wrong.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0I mean, like I said there are EXPLANATIONS like this http://www.adonald.btinternet.co.uk/Factor/Zero.html But it is different.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0prove it ,it does,nt mater ,it will add knowlede

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0lots of math people got together and decided, hey this is going to be the way

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0but the reason for it , it simplifies many formulas

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0thanks ,newton it was helpful

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0so maybe you should ask, whats the reason for the convention, thats a better question,

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0it can be proved using Gamma function

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0its just a definition, so you cant ask to prove a definition

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0or simply using the definition of the n!

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0you cant prove for example, that a bachelor is unmarried. its a definition

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0"It can be proved using the definition" Hmm, sounds like a proof to me (xD)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0well n! = n * n1 *...*3*2*1

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i am on my phone so its hard for me to type the whole derivation. or i would have given you

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0proof, by definition? ok i guess

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0but we dont define things just willy nilly. they are usually well good god reasons for it

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0While you're at it, prove all the axioms please, umza? And (technically), \[1! = 1 \times 0! \] \[2! = 2 \times 1! \] \[3! = 3 \times 2! \] ... \[n! = n \times (n1)! \]

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Umza please go learn the definition of 'proof' and come back.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0uzma, that doesnt work

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0uzma , what about 0! = 0 * (01)! ?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0anyways, i like the binomial series , i think its called pochhammer

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0the reason why we have 0! is because we have n choose r = n! / ( nr)! r!

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0and when you have r = 0, we have n! / n! 0!

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0the actual proof is done using Gamma function

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0wait, its false that 0! = 0 * (01)!

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0the proof for what, the bionomial series

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0oh sorry, i misread the question and thought that you are asking to prove 0 = 1 instead of 0! = 1 lol. its very easy to prove.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0OMG yes it's SOOOO EASY to prove  just do it quickly please?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0but i don't know to type, its not easy to type "please".

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i'm back!!! are you guys there. lol
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