prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?

- anonymous

prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?

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- anonymous

0! is defined as 1.
QED.

- anonymous

prove it

- anonymous

I think you misunderstand the terms ' definition ' and 'prove'.

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- anonymous

You can explain why it 'makes sense' it should be one, but when it comes down it it, it's just defined to be that.

- anonymous

everything has a prove in mathematics ,

- anonymous

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom .
Now shut up please.

- anonymous

see, i can prove it but there is always some "bug". maybe it will work for you but for some other person (who has more knowledge of maths) can prove it wrong.

- anonymous

Prove it.

- anonymous

I mean, like I said there are EXPLANATIONS like this
http://www.adonald.btinternet.co.uk/Factor/Zero.html
But it is different.

- anonymous

prove it ,it does,nt mater ,it will add knowlede

- anonymous

its a convention

- anonymous

lots of math people got together and decided, hey this is going to be the way

- anonymous

but the reason for it , it simplifies many formulas

- anonymous

thanks ,newton it was helpful

- anonymous

so maybe you should ask, whats the reason for the convention, thats a better question,

- anonymous

it can be proved using Gamma function

- anonymous

its just a definition, so you cant ask to prove a definition

- anonymous

or simply using the definition of the n!

- anonymous

you cant prove for example, that a bachelor is unmarried. its a definition

- anonymous

"It can be proved using the definition"
Hmm, sounds like a proof to me (xD)

- anonymous

well n! = n * n-1 *...*3*2*1

- anonymous

theres isnt 0! in it

- anonymous

hehe

- anonymous

i am on my phone so its hard for me to type the whole derivation. or i would have given you

- anonymous

proof, by definition?
ok i guess

- anonymous

but we dont define things just willy nilly. they are usually well good god reasons for it

- anonymous

n!=n(n-1!
put n=1

- anonymous

While you're at it, prove all the axioms please, umza?
And (technically),
\[1! = 1 \times 0! \]
\[2! = 2 \times 1! \]
\[3! = 3 \times 2! \]
...
\[n! = n \times (n-1)! \]

- anonymous

Umza please go learn the definition of 'proof' and come back.

- anonymous

mean?INew

- anonymous

uzma, that doesnt work

- anonymous

ok thank u

- anonymous

uzma , what about 0! = 0 * (0-1)! ?

- anonymous

anyways, i like the binomial series , i think its called pochhammer

- anonymous

(0-1)! does it work?

- anonymous

the reason why we have 0! is because we have
n choose r = n! / ( n-r)! r!

- anonymous

and when you have r = 0, we have n! / n! 0!

- anonymous

the actual proof is done using Gamma function

- anonymous

wait, its false that 0! = 0 * (0-1)!

- anonymous

the proof for what, the bionomial series

- anonymous

oh sorry, i misread the question and thought that you are asking to prove 0 = 1 instead of 0! = 1 lol. its very easy to prove.

- anonymous

OMG yes it's SOOOO EASY to prove - just do it quickly please?

- anonymous

but i don't know to type, its not easy to type "please".

- anonymous

Oh, I thought so.

- anonymous

i'm back!!! are you guys there. lol

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