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0! is defined as 1.
QED.

prove it

I think you misunderstand the terms ' definition ' and 'prove'.

everything has a prove in mathematics ,

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom .
Now shut up please.

Prove it.

prove it ,it does,nt mater ,it will add knowlede

its a convention

lots of math people got together and decided, hey this is going to be the way

but the reason for it , it simplifies many formulas

thanks ,newton it was helpful

so maybe you should ask, whats the reason for the convention, thats a better question,

it can be proved using Gamma function

its just a definition, so you cant ask to prove a definition

or simply using the definition of the n!

you cant prove for example, that a bachelor is unmarried. its a definition

"It can be proved using the definition"
Hmm, sounds like a proof to me (xD)

well n! = n * n-1 *...*3*2*1

theres isnt 0! in it

hehe

i am on my phone so its hard for me to type the whole derivation. or i would have given you

proof, by definition?
ok i guess

but we dont define things just willy nilly. they are usually well good god reasons for it

n!=n(n-1!
put n=1

Umza please go learn the definition of 'proof' and come back.

mean?INew

uzma, that doesnt work

ok thank u

uzma , what about 0! = 0 * (0-1)! ?

anyways, i like the binomial series , i think its called pochhammer

(0-1)! does it work?

the reason why we have 0! is because we have
n choose r = n! / ( n-r)! r!

and when you have r = 0, we have n! / n! 0!

the actual proof is done using Gamma function

wait, its false that 0! = 0 * (0-1)!

the proof for what, the bionomial series

OMG yes it's SOOOO EASY to prove - just do it quickly please?

but i don't know to type, its not easy to type "please".

Oh, I thought so.

i'm back!!! are you guys there. lol