anonymous
  • anonymous
I have a question involving limits
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
yeah
anonymous
  • anonymous
I'm sure you do. . . ! Lol.
anonymous
  • anonymous
\[ \lim_{h \rightarrow 0 } (1+h)^\ln(1+h)-1/h\]

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More answers

yuki
  • yuki
shoot it
anonymous
  • anonymous
the ln(1=h) is all together as a power
anonymous
  • anonymous
the ln(1+h) rather
anonymous
  • anonymous
it looks like the definition of a derivative... almost
yuki
  • yuki
is it \[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0} ((1+h)^{\ln(1+h)}-1 )/h\] ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
someone asked this earlier. but use L'hopital's rule and get an indeterminate form of 0/0 by deriving the numerater and denomenator seperately
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes
anonymous
  • anonymous
do that and u'll get ur answer. Tell me what you get cuz I don't wanna just give u the answer
anonymous
  • anonymous
sounds good to me!
anonymous
  • anonymous
medal pwease
yuki
  • yuki
lol
anonymous
  • anonymous
i got it to be 0/0 but i don't know where to go exactly from there
anonymous
  • anonymous
thats ur answer
anonymous
  • anonymous
ohhh, that easy haha. thanks pointing me in the right direction!
anonymous
  • anonymous
0/0 is the answer?
anonymous
  • anonymous
No, 0/0 is an indeterminate answer. If you get a limit in the form of 0/0, you have to use l'Hopital's rule -- if limit of f(x)/g(x) as x ----> infinity = 0/0 or infinity/infinity, then that same limit equals the limit of f'(x)/g'(x). (The limit of the ratio of two functions giving 0/0 or infinity/infinity = the limit of the ratio of their derivatives).
anonymous
  • anonymous
looks like its back to the drawing board for me then!

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