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anonymous
 5 years ago
Can someone explain to me why: Given that 1/(1x) is represented by the power series 1 + x + x^2 + ... + x^n + ... on the interval (1,1) the power series that represents (1/(1+x)) = 1  x + x^2  x^3 + ... (x)^n on (1,1). I'm trying to wrap my head around power series, but I don't quite understand.
anonymous
 5 years ago
Can someone explain to me why: Given that 1/(1x) is represented by the power series 1 + x + x^2 + ... + x^n + ... on the interval (1,1) the power series that represents (1/(1+x)) = 1  x + x^2  x^3 + ... (x)^n on (1,1). I'm trying to wrap my head around power series, but I don't quite understand.

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anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0there is binomial theorem to prove this....you can check.... but here i can tell you to prove it using GP series.... 1+x+x^2.......n terms...=(x^n1)/(x1) now if x<1 and n>infinity so x^n>0. so you get 1+x+x^2+....x^n+....=1/(1x) and hence your result...I think you can follw it it is easier to understand...
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