anonymous
  • anonymous
i need help for a quiz: Horace has a mood disorder and has recently sought treatment for it. The therapist explained that his mood disorder stems from not having enough of certain neurotransmitters. From which psychological model is this explanation? ( A) the behavioral model (B) the cognitive model (C)the medical model (D)the psychodynamic model
Health Sciences
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
my guess is the medical model.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Hi Vane! You may not need this anymore but I noticed the wrong answer above.. so.. Anything that speaks to neurotransmitters, or their adjustment is a part of the medical model. Below I have included a short ref. Hope it helps. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Models_of_abnormality
anonymous
  • anonymous
hi, vane, the medical model explains the neurotransmitter and similar chemical or physical problem creators. an example of this can be the "neurotic" and the "psychotic" disorders, with neurotic referring to the disorders that stem from an imbalance in the nervous (physiological) area, and psychotic with the psychological areas. so psychotic disorder may be explained by the psycho-dynamic, cognitive and other models and neurotic by the medical models... hope this is of some use to you...

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Obviously it is medical. Other options pertain to mental processes. When answering questions, try to do "elimination method".
matthewrlee
  • matthewrlee
It's the typical method. In other words, "We can't see in your brain. We have ideas about what happens inside, but we're really not sure. What we do know is that patients who present with your symptoms tend to respond well to this type of medication. I'll write you a prescription for . . ." Call it whatever you like, that is the typical run down of a prescribing doctor. The therapist is another matter.

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