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thanks, but you didn't prove that the function has roots or not ?

the very fact that the derivative is positive and its an odd-degree fn shows it has atleast one root

I have proven it that way. What do you think ?

that's basically what we were saying, but more long winded ;)

I did some research then I put my answer together.. Thanks all

yeah uve said the same thing in a completely abstract and meticulous maner..great