anonymous
  • anonymous
how do i solve y''+y = (Dirac(t-2*pi))*cos(t) ??
Mathematics
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this
and thousands of other questions

yuki
  • yuki
wow, what does Dirac mean?
anonymous
  • anonymous
It is the Dirac Delta function.
anonymous
  • anonymous
It is related to the Laplace Transforms of Impulse Functions.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
Is it related to signal processing
anonymous
  • anonymous
It definitely has it's applications in that. I'm using it in differential equations right now.
anonymous
  • anonymous
This is way too advanced for me
yuki
  • yuki
I would love to help but I don't have my DE book with me sorry
anonymous
  • anonymous
no problem, thanks anyways.
yuki
  • yuki
All I can remember is that all Laplace transformations have a table and it should tell you what the integral is, right?
yuki
  • yuki
I hope you can find someone who can help you
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yes it is in there; however, I don't know what to do with it since the "cos(t)" function is slipped in there.
yuki
  • yuki
integration by parts maybe?
anonymous
  • anonymous
I found a solution to my problem..it was quite simple. I don't have a formal proof, but Sal from Kahn Academy in his D.E. lectures justified it for me. L{Dirac(t-c)*f(t)} = exp(-sc)*f(c) Thanks anyways, though.
yuki
  • yuki
I'm glad that you got the answer.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.