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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

how do i solve y''+y = (Dirac(t-2*pi))*cos(t) ??

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  1. Yuki
    • 5 years ago
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    wow, what does Dirac mean?

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    It is the Dirac Delta function.

  3. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    It is related to the Laplace Transforms of Impulse Functions.

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Is it related to signal processing

  5. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    It definitely has it's applications in that. I'm using it in differential equations right now.

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    This is way too advanced for me

  7. Yuki
    • 5 years ago
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    I would love to help but I don't have my DE book with me sorry

  8. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    no problem, thanks anyways.

  9. Yuki
    • 5 years ago
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    All I can remember is that all Laplace transformations have a table and it should tell you what the integral is, right?

  10. Yuki
    • 5 years ago
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    I hope you can find someone who can help you

  11. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Yes it is in there; however, I don't know what to do with it since the "cos(t)" function is slipped in there.

  12. Yuki
    • 5 years ago
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    integration by parts maybe?

  13. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    I found a solution to my problem..it was quite simple. I don't have a formal proof, but Sal from Kahn Academy in his D.E. lectures justified it for me. L{Dirac(t-c)*f(t)} = exp(-sc)*f(c) Thanks anyways, though.

  14. Yuki
    • 5 years ago
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    I'm glad that you got the answer.

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