anonymous
  • anonymous
Is it possible to find a function f(x) such that f(f^-1(B)) does NOT equal B? where in f:X-->Y, B is a subset of Y?
Mathematics
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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yuki
  • yuki
intuitively that should never happen ... because f^-1: Y -->X
yuki
  • yuki
and f(x) is defined for all x in X
yuki
  • yuki
maybe you can do a proof by contradiction?

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yuki
  • yuki
maybe you can do a proof by contradiction?

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