## anonymous 5 years ago Why is is that as limit of x goes to infinity, that 1/arctan(x) becomes 1/(pi/2).....

1. anonymous

because $lim_{x\to\infty}arctan(x)=\frac{\pi}{2}$

2. anonymous

and that is because as $lim_{x\to\frac{\pi}{2}} tan(x)=\infty$

3. anonymous

thanks, it all makes sense now