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anonymous
 5 years ago
How do I restrict the domain and codomain of f(x) = x^2 so that it is a bijection (and its inverse is a function)?
anonymous
 5 years ago
How do I restrict the domain and codomain of f(x) = x^2 so that it is a bijection (and its inverse is a function)?

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amistre64
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0isnt bijection just another term for inverse function? onetoone?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0just say that x>=0 then for every value of x there is only one y and it is a strictly increasing function so for every y there is only 1 x

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0bijection means that function is onto and one to one

amistre64
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0thought so; it sounded like group theory terminology to me..

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0I learnt this at Calculus

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Rio another solution is 0>=x
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