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anonymous
 5 years ago
Limit
anonymous
 5 years ago
Limit

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anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} [(1+1/ n^2)(1+2^2/n^2)......(1+n^2/n^2)]^{1/n}\]

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0why dont u try taking log..

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i dont know how to do it

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0if we simply put n=infinity result comes out to be \[1^{0}\]

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0is it an indeterminate form?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0take log on both sides ln L = 1/n x sigma ln (1 + r^2/n^2)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0take r/n = x, 1/n= dx

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0hence ln L = ln(1 + x^2)dx from 0 to 1

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0now use integral by parts to integrate this

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0is it an indeterminate form? 1^0

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i told u..did u get it??????????????????????????/

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0deeprony? r u getting it?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i didnt understand what you said

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0see ill tell u the general method whenever u hav \[\sum_{0}^{\infty}f(r/n) \times 1/n\]

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0then put r/n = x and 1/n = dx

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0so u hav \[\int\limits_{0}^{1}f(x)dx\]

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0yea but why did u set the upper limit to 1??

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0when r=n then r/n is 1 isnt it/?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0oh yes.. i get it now...

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0\[given=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{\frac{\ln (1+\frac{1}{n^2})+...+\ln(1+\frac{n^2}{n^2})}{n}}\] apply l hospitals rule.

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0please i am having a doubt if we directly put n=infinity then the limit is coming out to be 2^0 is this an inderminate form???

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0its coming infinity^0

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0y so saubhik n^2 is in the denominator as n tends to infinity 1/n^2 , 2/n^2 ,... becomes 0

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0see the last term its 1+n^2/n^2. as n > infty then thus term tends to infty. understood?

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0cancel the n^2 last term comes out to be 2

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0wow wow man!!! Mankind has not been able to understand till today what is infty/infty and yet u claim its 1!

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0ok my bad i should have been more careful

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0yea.. it worked out..=)

anonymous
 5 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0chek dis one out http://openstudy.com/groups/mathematics#/groups/mathematics/updates/4dd66882d95c8b0b951d5ec4
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