roadjester
  • roadjester
integral(f(x))dx from 0 to pi where f(x)= sinx if 0<=x
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
-2
roadjester
  • roadjester
not -2
roadjester
  • roadjester
that's what i got too

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anonymous
  • anonymous
would you not just add the integral of sin(x) from 0 to pi/2 to the integral of cos(x) from pi/2 to pi? which is 1 + (-1) = 0, this is a piecewise defined function
roadjester
  • roadjester
ok, the answer is 0, can u elaborate please?
anonymous
  • anonymous
note the integral of sinx is -cosx
roadjester
  • roadjester
ok, i can follow that
roadjester
  • roadjester
i also know that the integral of cosx is sinx
roadjester
  • roadjester
it's the evaluation idk how to do
anonymous
  • anonymous
f(x) = sin(x) for 0< x
roadjester
  • roadjester
but aren't the 0, pi/2, and pi, restrictions of the graph? I see your logic but the question was integral of f(x)dx where f(x)=sin(x) if 0< = x < pi/2 and f(x)=cos(x) if pi/2< = x <= pi or is that irrelevant?
anonymous
  • anonymous
so this says, f(x) = sin(x) where x is greater than or equal to x and less than pi/2, and f(x) = cos(x) where x is greater than or equal to pi/2 and less than or equal to pi. all values you mentioned are defined in the graph (0,pi/2,pi) you are finding area under curve from [0,pi/2) and [pi/2,pi]
roadjester
  • roadjester
COOL! THANKS MAN (or girl/woman/miss, don't know your gender sorry) YOU ROCK!

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