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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

what is the limit as x approaches 0 when ((1-cosx)^2)/x

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  1. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    0 i think

  2. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    2(1-cosx) . sin(x) = 0

  3. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Yes L'pthals

  4. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    yep :)

  5. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    otherwise you expand the top and see what you can do to it..

  6. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ((1-cosx)(1-cosx))/x = 0?

  7. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    keep going....

  8. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    1 -2cos(X) + cos^2(x) -------------------- .... x

  9. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    doesn't (1-cosx)/x = o

  10. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    dunno; its been so long since I tried it the hard way :)

  11. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    you could try squeeze this on a graph

  12. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim {x+to+0+}%28%281-cosx%29^2%29%2Fx

  13. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    But, (1-cosx)/x times (1-cosx)/x = (1-cosx)^2 / x^2.......

  14. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Why would you do that?

  15. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    i dunno why it cuts it short; but copy paste that link itno your address bar

  16. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    @amogh - I'm just pointing out that I'm doing it wrong...

  17. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    1 Attachment
  18. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Yes, x will go with either of them, not both of them

  19. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    @amistre64: do you like ff4?

  20. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Sh@t! I did the problem wrong on my test then.......

  21. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    What did you answer?

  22. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Thank you for the Wolfram alpha link amistre64. How much is that?

  23. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    I answered "0" but I didn't do my work correctly (analytically), so I get the problem wrong

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