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Alexis1994_13

  • 3 years ago

prove that (a-bi)^150+(b+ai)^150= 0 Step by step please.

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  1. elecengineer
    • 3 years ago
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    get into mod arg form

  2. elecengineer
    • 3 years ago
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    the first has argument ( - tan^-1(b/a) ) the second ahs argument tan^-1 ( a/b )

  3. elecengineer
    • 3 years ago
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    wait not if that did much :\

  4. Alexis1994_13
    • 3 years ago
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    I don't understand. :/

  5. Alexis1994_13
    • 3 years ago
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    Do you mean that: (a-bi)^37*4+2 ?

  6. myininaya
    • 3 years ago
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  7. joemath314159
    • 3 years ago
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    amazing!

  8. Alexis1994_13
    • 3 years ago
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    I found it pretty easier myininaya. Thank you.

  9. myininaya
    • 3 years ago
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    i was expecting this to be harder

  10. myininaya
    • 3 years ago
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    we can probably generalize this

  11. myininaya
    • 3 years ago
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    let n=the exponent n mod 4=2

  12. Alexis1994_13
    • 3 years ago
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    Answer at my last question please.

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spraguer (Moderator)
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