anonymous
  • anonymous
prove that (a-bi)^150+(b+ai)^150= 0 Step by step please.
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
get into mod arg form
anonymous
  • anonymous
the first has argument ( - tan^-1(b/a) ) the second ahs argument tan^-1 ( a/b )
anonymous
  • anonymous
wait not if that did much :\

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anonymous
  • anonymous
I don't understand. :/
anonymous
  • anonymous
Do you mean that: (a-bi)^37*4+2 ?
myininaya
  • myininaya
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anonymous
  • anonymous
amazing!
anonymous
  • anonymous
I found it pretty easier myininaya. Thank you.
myininaya
  • myininaya
i was expecting this to be harder
myininaya
  • myininaya
we can probably generalize this
myininaya
  • myininaya
let n=the exponent n mod 4=2
anonymous
  • anonymous
Answer at my last question please.

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