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prove that (a-bi)^150+(b+ai)^150= 0 Step by step please.

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get into mod arg form
the first has argument ( - tan^-1(b/a) ) the second ahs argument tan^-1 ( a/b )
wait not if that did much :\

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Other answers:

I don't understand. :/
Do you mean that: (a-bi)^37*4+2 ?
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I found it pretty easier myininaya. Thank you.
i was expecting this to be harder
we can probably generalize this
let n=the exponent n mod 4=2
Answer at my last question please.

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