anonymous
  • anonymous
Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent. ~ (p ∧ q), ~p ∧ ~q
Mathematics
chestercat
  • chestercat
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this
and thousands of other questions

anonymous
  • anonymous
its been a while since ive dealt with truth tables and things like it, but when you negate something with a ^ or v in it, dont you switch it to the other?
anonymous
  • anonymous
hold on im not sure let me look at me txt book!
anonymous
  • anonymous
i might be completely wrong, its been a while.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
i think my book is in my car <.< im to tired to get it lol
anonymous
  • anonymous
~( p∧q)⇔~ p ∨ ~q by law 1 and this is not equivalent to ~ p ∧ ~ q, since if p is true and q is false, the first statement is true but the second is false. i got this from a website not sure if it correct!
anonymous
  • anonymous
brb
anonymous
  • anonymous
i think thats right. I remember always having to switch the sign when you negate.
anonymous
  • anonymous
ima go get my book lol >.>
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok
anonymous
  • anonymous
im back!
anonymous
  • anonymous
joe how would u write in ur own words?
anonymous
  • anonymous
if the problem didnt say "using De Morgan's Law", i would just use truth tables to show they arent equivalent.
anonymous
  • anonymous
but, since it say that, im looking through my book to see which Law would directly oppose that statement
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok
anonymous
  • anonymous
alright i got it. i'll post a pic in a sec.
anonymous
  • anonymous
by definition, the negation of (p ^ q) is (~p OR ~q), so they are not equivalent
anonymous
  • anonymous
@ Joe i thnk i got it thanks!
anonymous
  • anonymous
...and it looks like we arent able to post pics for the time being =/ bleh. Well, one of de Morgan's Laws is: \[\lnot(p\land q) \Leftrightarrow (\lnot p)\lor (\lnot q)\]

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.