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keebler01
 4 years ago
Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent.
~ (p ∧ q), ~p ∧ ~q
keebler01
 4 years ago
Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent. ~ (p ∧ q), ~p ∧ ~q

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joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1its been a while since ive dealt with truth tables and things like it, but when you negate something with a ^ or v in it, dont you switch it to the other?

keebler01
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1hold on im not sure let me look at me txt book!

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1i might be completely wrong, its been a while.

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1i think my book is in my car <.< im to tired to get it lol

keebler01
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1~( p∧q)⇔~ p ∨ ~q by law 1 and this is not equivalent to ~ p ∧ ~ q, since if p is true and q is false, the first statement is true but the second is false. i got this from a website not sure if it correct!

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1i think thats right. I remember always having to switch the sign when you negate.

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1ima go get my book lol >.>

keebler01
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1joe how would u write in ur own words?

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1if the problem didnt say "using De Morgan's Law", i would just use truth tables to show they arent equivalent.

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1but, since it say that, im looking through my book to see which Law would directly oppose that statement

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1alright i got it. i'll post a pic in a sec.

SaltyPete
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0by definition, the negation of (p ^ q) is (~p OR ~q), so they are not equivalent

keebler01
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1@ Joe i thnk i got it thanks!

joemath314159
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1...and it looks like we arent able to post pics for the time being =/ bleh. Well, one of de Morgan's Laws is: \[\lnot(p\land q) \Leftrightarrow (\lnot p)\lor (\lnot q)\]
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