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Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent. ~ (p ∧ q), ~p ∧ ~q

Mathematics
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its been a while since ive dealt with truth tables and things like it, but when you negate something with a ^ or v in it, dont you switch it to the other?
hold on im not sure let me look at me txt book!
i might be completely wrong, its been a while.

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Other answers:

i think my book is in my car <.< im to tired to get it lol
~( p∧q)⇔~ p ∨ ~q by law 1 and this is not equivalent to ~ p ∧ ~ q, since if p is true and q is false, the first statement is true but the second is false. i got this from a website not sure if it correct!
brb
i think thats right. I remember always having to switch the sign when you negate.
ima go get my book lol >.>
ok
im back!
joe how would u write in ur own words?
if the problem didnt say "using De Morgan's Law", i would just use truth tables to show they arent equivalent.
but, since it say that, im looking through my book to see which Law would directly oppose that statement
ok
alright i got it. i'll post a pic in a sec.
by definition, the negation of (p ^ q) is (~p OR ~q), so they are not equivalent
@ Joe i thnk i got it thanks!
...and it looks like we arent able to post pics for the time being =/ bleh. Well, one of de Morgan's Laws is: \[\lnot(p\land q) \Leftrightarrow (\lnot p)\lor (\lnot q)\]

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