A community for students.
Here's the question you clicked on:
 0 viewing
keebler01
 3 years ago
Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent.
~ (p ∧ q), ~p ∧ ~q
keebler01
 3 years ago
Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent. ~ (p ∧ q), ~p ∧ ~q

This Question is Closed

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1its been a while since ive dealt with truth tables and things like it, but when you negate something with a ^ or v in it, dont you switch it to the other?

keebler01
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1hold on im not sure let me look at me txt book!

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1i might be completely wrong, its been a while.

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1i think my book is in my car <.< im to tired to get it lol

keebler01
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1~( p∧q)⇔~ p ∨ ~q by law 1 and this is not equivalent to ~ p ∧ ~ q, since if p is true and q is false, the first statement is true but the second is false. i got this from a website not sure if it correct!

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1i think thats right. I remember always having to switch the sign when you negate.

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1ima go get my book lol >.>

keebler01
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1joe how would u write in ur own words?

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1if the problem didnt say "using De Morgan's Law", i would just use truth tables to show they arent equivalent.

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1but, since it say that, im looking through my book to see which Law would directly oppose that statement

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1alright i got it. i'll post a pic in a sec.

SaltyPete
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0by definition, the negation of (p ^ q) is (~p OR ~q), so they are not equivalent

keebler01
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1@ Joe i thnk i got it thanks!

joemath314159
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1...and it looks like we arent able to post pics for the time being =/ bleh. Well, one of de Morgan's Laws is: \[\lnot(p\land q) \Leftrightarrow (\lnot p)\lor (\lnot q)\]
Ask your own question
Sign UpFind more explanations on OpenStudy
Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.
spraguer
(Moderator)
5
→ View Detailed Profile
is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...
23
 Teamwork 19 Teammate
 Problem Solving 19 Hero
 Engagement 19 Mad Hatter
 You have blocked this person.
 ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...
Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.