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JethroKuanBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
No. Obviously. The proof involves using complex numbers and the fallacy lies in the fact that square roots are defined in a certain way.
 2 years ago

Paul2RBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
no my teacher already proved that it wasnt true
 2 years ago

AgarshnaMurariBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
yes guys all are correct! Just have a look at this link http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/falseProofs/first1eq2.html
 2 years ago

JoonasD6Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
That is a matter of definition. Proof relies on definitions. It can be done in numerous ways based on what we start with. (It doesn't necessarily require any specific part such as complex numbers.) If we start with 1 and 2 representing two different numbers, then they are.
 2 years ago

AgarshnaMurariBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
It is a good one to do for a maths exhibition!!!
 2 years ago

JoonasD6Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
The 1=2 is a classic fallacious proof which includes an erroneous step of dividing by zero. :)
 2 years ago

amistre64Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
if 1 and 2 represent quantities, then in order for them to equal they would have to correspond one to one 1 = * 2 = * * they do not correspond one to one
 2 years ago
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