anonymous
  • anonymous
Can 1=2?I need a correct proof.
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
No. Obviously. The proof involves using complex numbers and the fallacy lies in the fact that square roots are defined in a certain way.
anonymous
  • anonymous
no my teacher already proved that it wasnt true
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes guys all are correct! Just have a look at this link http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/falseProofs/first1eq2.html

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anonymous
  • anonymous
That is a matter of definition. Proof relies on definitions. It can be done in numerous ways based on what we start with. (It doesn't necessarily require any specific part such as complex numbers.) If we start with 1 and 2 representing two different numbers, then they are.
anonymous
  • anonymous
It is a good one to do for a maths exhibition!!!
anonymous
  • anonymous
The 1=2 is a classic fallacious proof which includes an erroneous step of dividing by zero. :)
amistre64
  • amistre64
if 1 and 2 represent quantities, then in order for them to equal they would have to correspond one to one 1 = * 2 = * * they do not correspond one to one

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