## AgarshnaMurari 4 years ago Can 1=2?I need a correct proof.

1. JethroKuan

No. Obviously. The proof involves using complex numbers and the fallacy lies in the fact that square roots are defined in a certain way.

2. Paul2R

no my teacher already proved that it wasnt true

3. AgarshnaMurari

yes guys all are correct! Just have a look at this link http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/falseProofs/first1eq2.html

4. JoonasD6

That is a matter of definition. Proof relies on definitions. It can be done in numerous ways based on what we start with. (It doesn't necessarily require any specific part such as complex numbers.) If we start with 1 and 2 representing two different numbers, then they are.

5. AgarshnaMurari

It is a good one to do for a maths exhibition!!!

6. JoonasD6

The 1=2 is a classic fallacious proof which includes an erroneous step of dividing by zero. :)

7. amistre64

if 1 and 2 represent quantities, then in order for them to equal they would have to correspond one to one 1 = * 2 = * * they do not correspond one to one