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AgarshnaMurari

  • 3 years ago

Can 1=2?I need a correct proof.

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  1. JethroKuan
    • 3 years ago
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    No. Obviously. The proof involves using complex numbers and the fallacy lies in the fact that square roots are defined in a certain way.

  2. Paul2R
    • 3 years ago
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    no my teacher already proved that it wasnt true

  3. AgarshnaMurari
    • 3 years ago
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    yes guys all are correct! Just have a look at this link http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/falseProofs/first1eq2.html

  4. JoonasD6
    • 3 years ago
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    That is a matter of definition. Proof relies on definitions. It can be done in numerous ways based on what we start with. (It doesn't necessarily require any specific part such as complex numbers.) If we start with 1 and 2 representing two different numbers, then they are.

  5. AgarshnaMurari
    • 3 years ago
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    It is a good one to do for a maths exhibition!!!

  6. JoonasD6
    • 3 years ago
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    The 1=2 is a classic fallacious proof which includes an erroneous step of dividing by zero. :)

  7. amistre64
    • 3 years ago
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    if 1 and 2 represent quantities, then in order for them to equal they would have to correspond one to one 1 = * 2 = * * they do not correspond one to one

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