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kap
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Hi, i'm trying to solve this integral on this site : http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcI/SubstitutionRuleIndefinite.aspx. The first question of Example 2:
sin(1x)(2cos(1x))^4 dx and i substituted
u=2cos(1x). So i solved for du= sin(1x)dx but the author of the tutorial says it is du=sin(1x)dx.
Since the derivative of cosx is sinx then the two negatives become positive.
Need some explanation why he still mainstains the negative infront of the sin.
thanks
 2 years ago
 2 years ago
kap Group Title
Hi, i'm trying to solve this integral on this site : http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcI/SubstitutionRuleIndefinite.aspx. The first question of Example 2: sin(1x)(2cos(1x))^4 dx and i substituted u=2cos(1x). So i solved for du= sin(1x)dx but the author of the tutorial says it is du=sin(1x)dx. Since the derivative of cosx is sinx then the two negatives become positive. Need some explanation why he still mainstains the negative infront of the sin. thanks
 2 years ago
 2 years ago

This Question is Closed

anilorap Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
when u take the derivative of 2cos(1x)= (sin)(1x)(1) derivative of the inside too derivative of (1x)
 2 years ago

keira_lee Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
that's because the negative come from differentiate of ( 1 x ) that is 1
 2 years ago

pokemon23 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
Today's my birthday :)
 2 years ago
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