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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

Let f(x) be a function such that f(1)=1 and for x≥1 f'(1)=i/(x2+f2(x)). Prove that the limit f(x) exists and the limit is less than 1+(π/4)

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  1. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Just want to clear up a few things. First, is that supposed to say (since you can't have an i in the derivative) \[f'(1)=\frac{1}{x^2+f(x)^2}\] Second, does what limit exist? The limit as x approaches infinity?

  2. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    yes... my bad

  3. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Use e-d definition to prove limit exists? Then show what the limit actually tends to show less than 1+pi/4?

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