On [0,1], let f have continuous derivatives satisfying 0<ƒ'(t)≤1. Also suppose ƒ(0)=0. Prove that (int_{0}^{1}ƒ(t)dt)^{2}≥int_{0}^{1}(ƒ(t))^{3}dt

See more answers at brainly.com

\[(\int\limits_{0}^{1}ƒ(t)dt)^{2}≥\int\limits_{0}^{1}(ƒ(t))^{3}dt \]

that's what it looks like

This is just the integral version of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

## More answers

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.