## anonymous 5 years ago http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/DE/Linear_files/eq0041M.gif why is it 50? its not 1.9208?

1. anonymous

2. anonymous

im sorry!!!!

3. anonymous

why?

4. anonymous

i am not good at math.

5. anonymous

6. anonymous

It is 50 because 9.8/0.196=50

7. anonymous

$\int e^{kx} dx = \frac{1}{k} e^{kx} + c$

8. anonymous

wow. thanks. thank you so much!=)

9. anonymous

No worries :)

10. anonymous

wait. howcome we just divided it?

11. anonymous

because we are integrating so the rule is given by $\int ae^{kx} dx = \frac{a}{k}e^{kx}$ where a and k are constants

12. anonymous

if you derive the answer you will get the original equation. <--- you can use this fact to check your answer

13. anonymous

ah. so that's the rule. its the first time i knew that. whoops=) thanks.