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anonymous

  • 4 years ago

what does it mean when two function are orthagonal?

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  1. amistre64
    • 4 years ago
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    f(x).g(x) = 0 perhaps?

  2. anonymous
    • 4 years ago
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    oh, so for every value of x , the dot product is zero?

  3. amistre64
    • 4 years ago
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    http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=orthogonal+functions

  4. amistre64
    • 4 years ago
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    thats my gut feeling about it, but im sure it needs to be refined

  5. anonymous
    • 4 years ago
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    ok , thank

  6. amistre64
    • 4 years ago
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    http://www.math.odu.edu/~jhh/samp2.PDF this looks readable as well

  7. amistre64
    • 4 years ago
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    i recall that polynomials are vectors spaces, so a dot product on the coeffs would seem reasonable to me; but an inner product might be more all encompassing for functions in general

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