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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

EVERYBODY LOOK HERE!!!!! what is -6.4 as a fraction

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  1. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Gracias Senor I am forever grateful!!!! U get fre medal and fan and...thats all i can give:(

  2. karatechopper
    • 5 years ago
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    -6 2/5

  3. karatechopper
    • 5 years ago
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    and i am a Senorita

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    gracias senorita ;)

  5. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    -6.4 = -(6+0.4) = -(6+2/5) = -32/5

  6. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    ok, you have my attention... rewrite this as\[-\frac{6.4}{1}\]now we want to get rid of the 0.4 on top, so we need to multiply it by something to make it go away. Whatever we multiply the top by though, we have to multiply the bottom by as well. A little thought and you will notice that \[6.4\times5=32\]so we will multiply top and bottom of our fraction by 5\[-\frac{6.4}{1}\times\frac{5}{5}=-\frac{32}{5}\]try to understand the process I used so you don't have to keep asking the same type of question.

  7. karatechopper
    • 5 years ago
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    :D

  8. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ALL OF YOU HAVE MY ETERNAL LOVE!!!

  9. Akshay_Budhkar
    • 5 years ago
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    nothing wrong is what turing says.. its more than perfect.. just to add my toppings on that beautiful cake, i will multiply it with 10 instead of 5 then divide it with 2 :D Find that simpler and faster :D

  10. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    true^ smarter, and therefor easier way :)

  11. Akshay_Budhkar
    • 5 years ago
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    :D

  12. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Turing's was good because he saw that 5 was needed to multiply 6.4 in order to produce an integer. In fact, and integer multiple of 5 will do, picking 5 shows mad skillz

  13. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    so how woud u do 0.48

  14. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    any*

  15. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    Let's do this one akshay's way:\[0.48=\frac{0.48}{1}\]the top will obviously be an integer if we multiply it by 100, because\[0.48\times100=48\]but that means we need to do the same to the bottom as well. So what do we get by multiplying the top and bottom by 100 ?

  16. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    um...0.480/100?

  17. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    ^the numerator is wrong.\[0.48\times100=48\]so\[0.48=\frac{0.48}{1}\times\frac{100}{100}=?\]

  18. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    karatechopper help me plzz!!

  19. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    ok so 48/100

  20. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    remember that whenever we multiply a decimal by some power of ten, we move the decimal point to the right by the number of zeros after the one 100 has two zero's, so\[0.48\times100\]will work like |dw:1327025337117:dw|so now we have\[0.48=\frac{48}{100}\]notice that both the top and bottom are even, so we can divide them both by 2 (this was akshay's method) so what do we get by dividing the top and bottom of our fraction by 2?

  21. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    24/50

  22. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    yes, and are top and bottom still both even?

  23. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    yes

  24. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    so do it again

  25. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    12/25

  26. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    good :) clearly 25 is not even, so no more dividing by 2 is possible so now ask yourself: is there ANY number that we can divide both top and bottom by that will leave us with integers on the top and bottom?

  27. TuringTest
    • 5 years ago
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    Well, you have apparently become bored of our discussion, so I will show you how you can know we are done: Assuming you know how to factor numbers, factor the top and bottom:\[\frac{12}{25}=\frac{2\times2\times3}{5\times5}\]since there are no /common factors/ on the top and bottom, this must be an irreducible fraction, so we are done.\[0.48=\frac{12}{25}\]

  28. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    sorry computer crashed

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