anonymous
  • anonymous
EVERYBODY LOOK HERE!!!!! what is -6.4 as a fraction
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
Gracias Senor I am forever grateful!!!! U get fre medal and fan and...thats all i can give:(
karatechopper
  • karatechopper
-6 2/5
karatechopper
  • karatechopper
and i am a Senorita

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anonymous
  • anonymous
gracias senorita ;)
anonymous
  • anonymous
-6.4 = -(6+0.4) = -(6+2/5) = -32/5
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
ok, you have my attention... rewrite this as\[-\frac{6.4}{1}\]now we want to get rid of the 0.4 on top, so we need to multiply it by something to make it go away. Whatever we multiply the top by though, we have to multiply the bottom by as well. A little thought and you will notice that \[6.4\times5=32\]so we will multiply top and bottom of our fraction by 5\[-\frac{6.4}{1}\times\frac{5}{5}=-\frac{32}{5}\]try to understand the process I used so you don't have to keep asking the same type of question.
karatechopper
  • karatechopper
:D
anonymous
  • anonymous
ALL OF YOU HAVE MY ETERNAL LOVE!!!
Akshay_Budhkar
  • Akshay_Budhkar
nothing wrong is what turing says.. its more than perfect.. just to add my toppings on that beautiful cake, i will multiply it with 10 instead of 5 then divide it with 2 :D Find that simpler and faster :D
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
true^ smarter, and therefor easier way :)
Akshay_Budhkar
  • Akshay_Budhkar
:D
anonymous
  • anonymous
Turing's was good because he saw that 5 was needed to multiply 6.4 in order to produce an integer. In fact, and integer multiple of 5 will do, picking 5 shows mad skillz
anonymous
  • anonymous
so how woud u do 0.48
anonymous
  • anonymous
any*
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
Let's do this one akshay's way:\[0.48=\frac{0.48}{1}\]the top will obviously be an integer if we multiply it by 100, because\[0.48\times100=48\]but that means we need to do the same to the bottom as well. So what do we get by multiplying the top and bottom by 100 ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
um...0.480/100?
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
^the numerator is wrong.\[0.48\times100=48\]so\[0.48=\frac{0.48}{1}\times\frac{100}{100}=?\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
karatechopper help me plzz!!
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok so 48/100
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
remember that whenever we multiply a decimal by some power of ten, we move the decimal point to the right by the number of zeros after the one 100 has two zero's, so\[0.48\times100\]will work like |dw:1327025337117:dw|so now we have\[0.48=\frac{48}{100}\]notice that both the top and bottom are even, so we can divide them both by 2 (this was akshay's method) so what do we get by dividing the top and bottom of our fraction by 2?
anonymous
  • anonymous
24/50
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
yes, and are top and bottom still both even?
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
so do it again
anonymous
  • anonymous
12/25
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
good :) clearly 25 is not even, so no more dividing by 2 is possible so now ask yourself: is there ANY number that we can divide both top and bottom by that will leave us with integers on the top and bottom?
TuringTest
  • TuringTest
Well, you have apparently become bored of our discussion, so I will show you how you can know we are done: Assuming you know how to factor numbers, factor the top and bottom:\[\frac{12}{25}=\frac{2\times2\times3}{5\times5}\]since there are no /common factors/ on the top and bottom, this must be an irreducible fraction, so we are done.\[0.48=\frac{12}{25}\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
sorry computer crashed

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