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anonymous

  • 5 years ago

I feel like asking a question: how do you prove the integral of e^(-pi * x^2) from -infinity to infinity = 1?

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  1. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    can we do a series on it?

  2. amistre64
    • 5 years ago
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    the ^(x^2) has me concerned

  3. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    This is a very difficult question and you need to use the theory of multivariable calculus to solve it. See my answer to this question here: http://openstudy.com/study?F5769949656131Z2X2S=_#/updates/4f13da1ce4b0a4c24f58da32

  4. anonymous
    • 5 years ago
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    Just perform the initial u-substitution \[u=x\sqrt{\pi}\] and the two problems will be exactly the same.

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