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given a set of (n+1) integers, none of which exceeds 2n, show that at least one of the numbers in the set must divide another number of the set

Mathematics
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..Do you mean one of the numbers is divisible?
yep! I think I figured it out... I'll have to use induction to do this one :)
Sorry I haven't had to do a proof by induction in years.

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Other answers:

yeah, i just figures it's not that... it's supposed to the Pigeonhole Principle (I THINK)

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