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kwenisha

  • 4 years ago

given a set of (n+1) integers, none of which exceeds 2n, show that at least one of the numbers in the set must divide another number of the set

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  1. 14yamaka
    • 4 years ago
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    ..Do you mean one of the numbers is divisible?

  2. kwenisha
    • 4 years ago
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    yep! I think I figured it out... I'll have to use induction to do this one :)

  3. MrYantho
    • 4 years ago
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    Sorry I haven't had to do a proof by induction in years.

  4. kwenisha
    • 4 years ago
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    yeah, i just figures it's not that... it's supposed to the Pigeonhole Principle (I THINK)

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