Here's the question you clicked on:
kwenisha
given a set of (n+1) integers, none of which exceeds 2n, show that at least one of the numbers in the set must divide another number of the set
..Do you mean one of the numbers is divisible?
yep! I think I figured it out... I'll have to use induction to do this one :)
Sorry I haven't had to do a proof by induction in years.
yeah, i just figures it's not that... it's supposed to the Pigeonhole Principle (I THINK)