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anonymous
 4 years ago
Regarding Big O notation, if the limit from n to infinity of f(n)/g(n) approaches 0, will f(n) still = O(g(n))?
anonymous
 4 years ago
Regarding Big O notation, if the limit from n to infinity of f(n)/g(n) approaches 0, will f(n) still = O(g(n))?

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anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0what is Big O .. is it order?

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0ok .. I got it .. see if you have f(x)/g(x) tending to 0 for x > infinity it means that there is some m for which for all x > m (f(x)/g(x)) is a decreasing function. Now assuming that there is a M which is only slightly greater than m. Hence for all x > m we would have f(x)/g(x) < f(M)/g(M) Now assume f(M)/g(M) = N (some number) then for all x> m we have f(x)/g(x) < N. Hence f(n) = O(g(n))
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