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anonymous
 4 years ago
Compute A= x^2+x/x+1 as x approaches +infinity and B= x^2+x/x^2+1 as x approaches infinity
anonymous
 4 years ago
Compute A= x^2+x/x+1 as x approaches +infinity and B= x^2+x/x^2+1 as x approaches infinity

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anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0By using l'hopital's rule, take the derivative of \[x ^{2}+x = 2x+1\] and the derivative of \[x+1 = 1\] \[A = +\infty\] Similary for B = 1

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0im not familiar with the l'hopital rule

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0is there a way i can do it geometrically

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0I don't think so. L'hopital's rule states that if you plug in the infinity into that equation and when the equations gives \[\infty/\infty\] or 0/0 you take the derivative of the equations separetly.

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0since im not familiar with this rule, can you walk me through it

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Did you read my post above? I gave you a little info about the rule. If you need detailed help just tell me.

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0yes please, i need detailed help

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0For example take the equation above \[A = x ^{2}+x/x+1\] If you replace +infinity in the all of the xs you get infinity/infinity which is an indeterminate form i.e. you cannot compute the answer. Because it is an indeterminate form you have to take the derivative of those equation seperatly, like i did in my first post.

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0ok so what happens to the 2x+1/1

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0replace infinity in that x which gives\[2(\infty)+1/1 = \infty\]

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.02(inf)+1/2(inf)+1 = inf?

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0No. The derivative of 1 = 0. The derivative of any constant is equal to 0

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i understand now thanks
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