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KatelynLeeAnn011

  • 3 years ago

/ In humans, the allele for having dimples is dominant to the allele for not having dimples. What would you expect to see in the offspring of a woman with dimples who is homozygous and a man who is heterozygous for the trait? Answer All of their offspring will have dimples. None of their offspring will have dimples. The probability of their offspring having dimples is 50%. Their offspring will have a 75% chance of having dimples.

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  1. blues
    • 3 years ago
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    The mother is homozygous dominant for dimples - it means that both her chromosomes with this gene on them have the dominant allele. Whichever she passes on to her offspring will have the dominant gene; therefore all the offspring will express the dominant allele.

  2. blues
    • 3 years ago
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    Clear?

  3. KatelynLeeAnn011
    • 3 years ago
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    yes thank you so much

  4. SephI
    • one year ago
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    Wrong. She is homozygous (DD) and he his hetero (Dd) You would get {(DD), (DD), (Dd), (Dd)} if you used a Mendal Chart DDDg You get: DD, DD, Dg, Dg, (First, inner, outer, last) It's 50/50

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